Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 02:37
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What are some prime examples of gibberish from the bible?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why do men love to stink/being smelly?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Who is someone that inspires you?
You'll usually find your answer there.